6a.103A-2—Qualified mortgage bond.
(a) In general—
(1) Qualified mortgage bond.
A qualified mortgage bond shall not be treated as a mortgage subsidy bond, and the interest on a qualified mortgage bond will be exempt from Federal income taxation.
(2) Termination date.
No obligation issued after December 31, 1987, shall be treated as part of a qualified mortgage bond issue.
(b) Definitions and special rules.
For purposes of this section and § 6a.103A-1, the following definitions apply:
(1) Qualified mortgage bond.
The term “qualified mortgage bond” means one or more obligations issued by a State or any political subdivision thereof (hereinafter referred to as “governmental unit”) as part of an issue—
(i)
All of the original proceeds of which, net of the costs of issuing the obligations and proceeds invested in a reasonably required reserve fund (such net amount hereinafter in this section referred to as “lendable proceeds”), are to be used to finance owner-occupied residences, and
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(2) Constitutional home rule city.
The term “constitutional home rule city” means, with respect to any calendar year, any political subdivision of a State which, under a State constitution which was adopted in 1970 and effective on July 1, 1971, had home rule powers on the 1st day of the calendar year.
(3) Targeted area residence.
The term “targeted area residence” means a residence in an area which is either—
(4) Qualified census tract.
(i)
The term “qualified census tract” means a census tract in which 70 percent or more of the families have an income which is 80 percent or less of the State-wide median family income.
(ii)
The determination under subdivision (i) shall be made on the basis of the most recent decennial census for which data are available. With respect to any particular bond issue, such determination may be based upon the decennial census data available 3 months prior to the date of issuance and shall not be affected by official changes to such data during or after such 3-month period.
(5) Areas of chronic economic distress.
(i)
The term “area of chronic economic distress” means an area designated by a State as meeting the standards established by that State for purposes of this subparagraph and approved by the Secretary and by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development in accordance with the criteria set forth in (iii) of this subparagraph. A State may withdraw such designation at any time, with reasonable cause. Such withdrawal shall be effective upon notification by the State to the Assistant Secretary for Housing/Federal Housing Commissioner of the Department of Housing and Urban Development. Such withdrawal shall not affect the tax-exempt status of any outstanding issue of obligations.
(ii)
For purposes of making a designation under this subparagraph, withdrawing a designation, or making any other submission, “State” means the governor of a State, or a State official commissioned by the governor or by State statute for such purposes.
(iii)
The following criteria will be used in evaluating a proposed designation of an area of chronic economic distress:
(A)
The condition of the housing stock, including the age of the housing and the number of abandoned and substandard residential units. Data pertinent to this criterion include the number and percentage of housing units that were constructed prior to 1940, the average age of the housing stock, the number and percentage of abandoned housing units, and the number and percentage of substandard residential units.
(B)
The need of area residents for owner financing under a qualified mortgage bond issue as indicated by low per capita income, a high percentage of families in poverty, a high number of welfare recipients, and high unemployment rates. Data pertinent to this criterion include the per capita income of the population in the area, the number and percentage of families eligible to receive food stamps from a program pursuant to 7 U.S.C. 2011, the number and percentage of families eligible to receive payments under the Aid to Families with Dependent Children program, and the unemployment rate.
(C)
The potential for use of owner financing under a qualified mortgage bond issue to improve housing conditions in the area. Data pertinent to this criterion include the number and percentage of owner-occupied homes that are substandard, the number and percentage of families that are low- or moderate-income renters, and the number and percentage of substandard units in the area that will be improved through the use of owner financing provided by the proceeds of a qualified mortgage bond issue.
(D)
The existence of a housing assistance plan which provides a displacement program and a public improvements and services program (similar to the Housing Assistance Plan (HAP) required by the Department of Housing and Urban Development under the Community Development Block Grant program (42 U.S.C. 5301
et seq. )).
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(iv)
A proposal by the State that an area be approved as an area of chronic economic distress shall contain the following information:
(B)
Maps of the State and of areas within the State that are qualified census tracts and existing or proposed areas of chronic economic distress.
(C)
Where applicable, a certification of the local Area Manager of the Department of Housing and Urban Development in which the proposed area is located that the proposed area is a Neighborhood Strategy Area (NSA) under 24 CFR 570.301(c) promulgated pursuant to the Community Development Block Grant program or an area comparable to a NSA which has been reviewed and approved by the Area Manager as meeting the standards for an NSA.
(D)
Where applicable, a certification from the HUD Area Manager with jurisdiction over the proposed area that the proposed area is within a geographic area which has been declared eligible for grants under the Urban Development Action Grant Program, Pursuant to 24 CFR 570.452, by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development.
(E)
Statistical and descriptive information pertinent to the criteria enumerated in subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph, and a succinct statement of how the information furnished satisfies those criteria. Such statistical information shall be based upon the most recent data available.
(F)
If the State so desires, a written request for a conference prior to any adverse decision on the proposed designation.
(G)
A certification by the Governor or designated official that the proposed designation conforms to these regulations.
(v)
The proposed designation and the information furnished with it as required by subdivision (iv) of this subparagraph shall be submitted in triplicate to the Assistant Secretary for Housing/Federal Housing Commissioner of the Department of Housing and Urban Development (Attention: Office of State Agency and Bond Financed Programs, Rm. 6138, 451 7th Street, SW., Washington, D.C. 20410).
(vi)
Only those areas of chronic economic distress that have been previously designated by the State and approved in accordance with this subparagraph at least 3 months prior to the date of issuance need to be taken into account for any particular bond issue. Residences located in areas designated as areas of chronic economic distress approved in accordance with this subparagraph within such 3-month period or after the date of issue, however, may be treated as targeted area residences. However, for purposes of paragraph (h)(2), relating to the specified portion of proceeds to be placed in targeted areas, and paragraph (i)(3)(ii)(A), relating to the 1 1/2 year temporary period, only areas approved as areas of chronic economic distress in accordance with this subparagraph at the time of issue may be taken into consideration.
(6) Standard metropolitan statistical area.
A standard metropolitan statistical area (“SMSA”) is an area in and around a city of 50,000 inhabitants or more (or equivalent area) and defined by the Secretary of Commerce as an SMSA.
(iii)
If there is insufficient recent statistical information with respect to a county (or portion thereof) described in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, such other area as may be designated by the Commissioner, upon proper application, as a substitute for such county (or portion thereof).
For purposes of subdivisions (ii) and (iii) of this subparagraph, in Alaska, the entire State, and in Louisiana, a parish, shall be treated in a manner similar to a county.
(8) Acquisition cost.
(i)
The term “acquisition cost” means the cost of acquiring a residence from the seller as a completed residential unit. Acquisition cost includes the following:
(A)
All amounts paid, either in cash or in kind, by the purchaser (or a related party or for the benefit of the purchaser) to the seller (or a related party or for the benefit of the seller) as consideration for the residence.
(B)
If a residence is incomplete, the reasonable cost of completing the residence whether or not the cost of completing construction is to be financed with bond proceeds. For example, where a mortgagor purchases a building which is so incomplete that occupancy of the building is not permitted under local law, the acquisition cost includes the cost of completing the building so that occupancy of the building is permitted.
(C)
Where a residence is purchased subject to a ground rent, the capitalized value of the ground rent. Such value shall be calculated using a discount rate equal to the yield on the issue (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(i)(2)(vi) ).
(A)
The usual and reasonable settlement or financing costs. Settlement costs include titling and transfer costs, title insurance, survey fees, or other similar costs. Financing costs include credit reference fees, legal fees, appraisal expenses, “points” which are paid by the buyer (but not the seller, even though borne by the mortgagor through a higher purchase price) or other costs of financing the residence. However, such amounts will be excluded in determining acquisition cost only to the extent that the amounts do not exceed the usual and reasonable costs which would be paid by the buyer where financing is not provided through a qualified mortgage bond issue. For example, if the purchaser agrees to pay to the seller more than a pro rata share of property taxes, such excess shall be treated as part of the acquisition cost of a residence.
(B)
The value of services performed by the mortgagor or members of the mortgagor's family in completing the residence. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the family of an individual shall include only the individual's brothers and sisters (whether by the whole or half blood), spouse, ancestors, and lineal descendants. For example, where the mortgagor builds a home alone or with the help of family members, the acquisition cost includes the cost of materials provided and work performed by subcontractors (whether or not related to the mortgagor) but does not include the imputed cost of any labor actually performed by the mortgagor or a member of the mortgagor's family in constructing the residence. Similarly, where the mortgagor purchases an incomplete residence the acquisition cost includes the cost of material and labor paid by the mortgagor to complete the residence but does not include the imputed value of the mortgagor's labor or the labor of the mortgagor's family in completing the residence.
(C)
The cost of land which has been owned by the mortgagor for at least 2 years prior to the date on which construction of the residence begins.
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(9) Qualified home improvement loan.
(i)
The term “qualified home improvement loan” means the financing (whether or not secured by a mortgage), in an amount which does not exceed $15,000 with respect to any residence, of alterations, repairs, and improvements on, or in connection with, an existing single-family, owner-occupied residence by the owner thereof, but only if such items substantially protect or improve the basic livability or energy efficiency of the residence.
(ii)
Alterations, repairs, or improvements that satisfy the requirement of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph include the renovation of plumbing or electric systems, the installation of improved heating or air conditioning systems, the addition of living space, or the renovation of a kitchen area. Items that will not be considered to substantially protect or improve the basic livability of the residence include swimming pools, tennis courts, saunas, or other recreational or entertainment facilities.
(A)
Two or more qualified home improvement loans are provided for the same residence, whether or not by the same lender, and
(B)
Any person who had a present ownership interest in such residence at the time the previous qualified home improvement loan or loans were made has a present ownership interest in the residence at the time the subsequent qualified home improvement loan is made,
Then the allowable amount of the subsequent qualified home improvement loan shall be reduced by the amount, at origination, of any previous qualified home improvement loan, so that the sum of such loans does not exceed $15,000.
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(10) Qualified rehabilitation loans.
(i)
The term “qualified rehabilitation loan” means any owner financing provided in connection with—
But only if the mortgagor to whom such financing is provided is the first resident of the residence after completion of the rehabilitation. Where there are two or more mortgagors of a rehabilitation loan, the first residency requirement is met if any of the mortgagors meets the first residency requirement.
(A)
There is a period of at least 20 years between the date on which the building was first used and the date on which physical work on such rehabilitation begins,
(B)
75 percent or more of the existing external walls of such building are retained in place as external walls in the rehabilitation process, and
(C)
The expenditures for such rehabilitation are 25 percent or more of the mortgagor's adjusted basis in the residence (including the land on which the residence is located).
(iii)
For purposes of (A) and (B), the rules applicable to the investment tax credit for qualified rehabilitated buildings under section 48(g)(1) (A)(iii) and (B) shall apply. However, unlike section 48(g)(1)(B), once a building meets the 20-year test, more than one rehabilitation of that building within a 20-year period may qualify as a qualified rehabilitation.
(iv)
The adjusted basis to the mortgagor is the mortgagor's adjusted basis for purposes of determining gain or loss on the sale or exchange of a capital asset (as defined in section 1221 ). The mortgagor's adjusted basis shall be determined as of the date of completion of the rehabilitation, or, if later, the date the mortgagor acquires the residence, i.e., the date on which the mortgagor includes in basis any amounts expended for rehabilitation that are expended for capital assets.
(v)
The amounts expended by the mortgagor for rehabilitation include all amounts expended for rehabilitation regardless of whether the amounts expended were financed from the proceeds of the loan or from other sources, and regardless of whether the expenditure is a capital expenditure, so long as the expenditure is made during the rehabilitation of the residence and is reasonably related to the rehabilitation of the residence. The value of services performed by the mortgagor or members of the mortgagor's family (as used in § 6a.103A-2(b)(8)(ii)(B)) in rehabilitating the residence will not be included in determining the rehabilitation expenditures for purposes of the 25-percent test.
(vi)
Where a mortgagor purchases a residence that has been substantially rehabilitated, the 25-percent test is determined by comparing the total expenditures made by the seller for the rehabilitation of the residence with the acquisition cost of the residence to the mortgagor. The total expenditures made by the seller for rehabilitation do not include the cost of acquiring the building or land but do include all amounts directly expended by the seller in rehabilitating the building (excluding overhead and other indirect charges).
(c) Good faith compliance efforts—
(1) Mortgage eligibility requirements.
An issue of qualified mortgage bonds which fails to meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (j) of this section shall be treated as meeting such requirements if each of the following provisions is met.
(i)
The issuer in good faith attempted to meet all such requirements before the mortgages were executed. Good faith requires that the trust indenture, participation agreements with loan originators, and other relevant instruments contain restrictions that permit the financing of mortgages only in accordance with such requirements. In addition, the issuer must establish reasonable procedures to ensure compliance with such requirements. Such procedures include reasonable investigations by the issuer or its agent to determine that the mortgages satisfy such requirements.
(ii)
Ninety-five percent or more of the lendable proceeds (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(1)) that were devoted to owner financing were devoted to residences with respect to which, at the time the mortgages were executed or assumed, all such requirements were met. In determining whether the proceeds are devoted to owner financing which meets such requirements, the issuer may rely on an affidavit of the mortgagor that the property is located within the issuer's jurisdiction and an affidavit of the mortgagor and the seller that the requirements of § 6a.103A-2(f) are met. The issuer may also rely on his own or his agent's examination of copies of income tax returns which were filed with the Internal Revenue Service and which are provided by the mortgagor or obtained by the issuer or loan originator in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 301.6103(c)-1 which indicate that, during the preceding 3 years, the mortgagor did not claim deductions for taxes or interest on indebtness with respect to real property constituting his principal residence, in addition to an affidavit of the mortgagor that the requirements of § 6a.103A-2(e) are met. The mortgagor may also provide the issuer or his agent with an affidavit that the mortgagor was not required to file such return in accordance with section 6012 during one or all of the preceding 3 years. Where a particular mortgage fails to meet more than one of these requirements, the amount of the mortgage will be taken into account only once in determining whether the 95-percent requirement is met. However, all of the defects in the mortgage must be corrected pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
(iii)
Any failure to meet such requirements is corrected within a reasonable period after such failure is discovered. For example, where a mortgage fails to meet one or more of such requirements those failures can be corrected by calling the nonqualifying mortgage or by replacing the nonqualifying mortgage with a qualifying mortgage.
(iv) Examples.
The following examples illustrate the application of paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
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(2) Nonmortgage eligibility requirements.
An issue of qualified mortgage bonds which fails to meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section and § 6a.103A-1(a)(5) shall be treated as meeting such requirements if each of the following provisions is met.
(i)
The issuer in good faith attempted to meet all such requirements. This good faith requirement will be met if all reasonable steps are taken by the issuer to ensure that the issue complies with these requirements.
(ii)
Any failure to meet such requirements is due to inadvertent error, e.g., mathematical error, after taking reasonable steps to comply with such requirements.
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(d) Residence requirements—
(1) In general.
An issue meets the requirements of this paragraph only if all of the residences for which owner financing is provided under the issue meet the requirements of this paragraph. A residence meets the requirements of this paragraph only if—
(i)
It is a single-family residence (as defined in § 6a.103A-1(b)(6)) which, at the time the mortgage is executed or assumed, can reasonably be expected by the issuer to become the principal residence of the mortgagor within a reasonable time after the financing is provided; and
(2) Affidavit.
The requirements of subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph may normally be met if the mortgagor executes an affidavit of his intent to use the residence as his principal residence within a reasonable time (e.g., 60 days) after the financing is provided.
(3) Principal residence.
Whether a residence is used as a principal residence depends upon all the facts and circumstances of each case, including the good faith of the mortgagor. A residence which is primarily intended to be used in a trade or business shall not satisfy the requirements of this paragraph. For purposes of the preceding sentence, any use of a residence which does not qualify for a deduction allowable for certain expenses incurred in connection with the business use of a home under section 280A shall not be considered as a use in a trade or business. Except for certain owner-occupied residences described in paragraph (b)(6) of § 6a.103A-1, a residence more than 15 percent of the total area of which is reasonably expected to be used primarily in a trade or business does not satisfy the requirements of this subparagraph. Further, a residence used as an investment property or a recreational home does not satisfy the requirements of this subparagraph.
(4) Residence.
(i)
The term “residence” includes stock held by a tenant-stockholder in a cooperative housing corporation (as those terms are defined in section 216(b) (1) and (2) ). It does not include property such as an appliance, a piece of furniture, a radio, etc., which, under applicable local law, is not a fixture. The term also includes factory-made housing which is permanently fixed to real property. The determination of whether factory-made housing is permanently fixed to real property shall be made on the basis of the facts and circumstances of each particular case.
(ii) Land.
Land appurtenant to a residence shall be considered as part of the residence only if such land reasonably maintains the basic livability of the residence and does not provide, other than incidentally, a source of income to the mortgagor.
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(e) 3-year requirement—
(1) In general.
An issue meets the requirements of this paragraph only if each of the mortgagors to whom owner financing is provided under the issue meets the requirements of this paragraph. A mortgagor meets the requirements of this paragraph only if the mortgagor had no present ownership interest in a principal residence at any time during the 3-year period prior to the date on which the mortgage is executed. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the mortgagor's interest in the residence with respect to which the financing is being provided shall not be taken into account.
(i)
Any financing provided with respect to a targeted area residence (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(3) ),
(3) Multiple mortgagors.
In the event that there is more than one mortgagor with respect to a particular residence, each of such mortgagors must meet the 3-year requirement. A person who is liable under a note secured by the mortgage but who does not have a present ownership interest in a residence subject to the mortgage need not meet the 3-year requirement. For example, where a parent of a home purchaser cosigns the note for a child but the parent takes no interest in the residence, it is not necessary that the parent meet the 3-year requirement since the parent is not a mortgagor of the residence.
(4) Included interests.
Examples of interests which constitute present ownership interests are the following:
(v)
A land contract (i.e., a contract pursuant to which possession and the benefits and burdens of ownership are transferred although legal title is not transferred until some later time); and
(vi)
An interest held in trust for the mortgagor (whether or not created by the mortgagor) that would constitute a present ownership interest if held directly by the mortgagor.
(5) Excluded interests.
Examples of interests which do not constitute present ownership interests are the following:
(iv)
The interest that a purchaser of a residence acquires on the execution of a purchase contract; and
(f) Purchase price requirements—
(1) In general.
An issue meets the requirements of this paragraph only if the acquisition cost (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(8)) of each residence, other than a targeted area residence, for which owner financing is provided does not exceed 90 percent of the average area purchase price applicable to such residence. In the case of a targeted area residence (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(3) ), the acquistion cost may not exceed 110 percent of the average area purchase price applicable to such residence.
(2) Exception.
Paragraph (1) shall not apply with respect to any qualified home improvement loan (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(9) ).
(3) Average area purchase price.
The term “average area purchase price” means, with respect to any residence, the average purchase price of all single-family residences in the statistical area (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(7)) in which the residence being financed is located for the most recent 12-month period for which sufficient statistical information is available. The determination whether a particular residence meets the purchase price requirement shall be made as of the date on which the commitment to provide the financing is made or, if earlier, the date of purchase of the residence.
(4) Special rules.
(i)
In the case of a qualified rehabilitation loan, the requirements of this paragraph are met if the mortgagor's adjusted basis in the property as of the completion of the rehabilitation (including the cost of the rehabilitation) meets the requirements of paragraph (f)(1). For this purpose, a rehabilitated residence is to be treated as a residence which has been previously occupied.
(5) Safe harbor limitation.
(i)
For purposes of meeting the requirements of this paragraph, an issuer may rely upon average area purchase price limitations published by the Treasury Department for the statistical area in which a residence is located. These safe harbor limitations will be effective for the period stated at the time of publication. An issuer may use a limitation different from such safe harbor limitation for any statistical area (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(7)) for which the issuer has more accurate and comprehensive data.